Execute trade immediatly after a stop is hit
It's not about "I thought".
The code snippet posted above uses NO LEVERAGE. A plain buy of
3.63 * 7,440(i.e.
27,007.2units of cash) is attempted when only
10,000units of cash are available.
Why shouldn't the buy order be rejected?
An example which uses leverage
student last edited by
Thanks for bearing with, I added
now everything works how I want it. Thanks.